onioncheese4
onioncheese4
03-09-2020
Mathematics
contestada
Why is 4 + (-3) equal to 1?
Respuesta :
agreenlee
agreenlee
03-09-2020
This is because 4+(-3) is also 4-3. So that equals 1
Answer Link
raushan197308
raushan197308
03-09-2020
Step-by-step explanation:
4+(-3)=1
because when you open brackets + and - will be -, so 4-3=1
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 72+ )
Otras preguntas
-9(x + 6) = -207 and 5x-3(x-3)= -6+6x-5
The Nuremburg Laws is: A) were based on the Code of Hammurabi. B) were enacted in June of 1945, C) stripped the Jews of their legal rights. D) protected the Je
Two people can say the same thing, but the _____ can change how the message is received. speed of speech tone use of complicated words none of the above
Write the explicit formula for the arithmetic sequence 11, 14, 17, 20, . . . What is term number 54 in this sequence? Answer:
The Renaissance period was a time where art and culture were centered around reviving Greek and Roman art and customs. True False
A car decelerates uniformly from 54 m/s to 38 m/s in 8.0 seconds. How far does it travel dunng this time?
how big are my toes in inches?
which word best completes this analogy
What is nuclear fusion what role does it play in the sun
Issues Question 3 of 10 What is one of the three main strategies that Woolf used in A Room of One's Own to help the reader understand her topic? A. Stating her
